Computer Theory

1. In a GUI, the window that is currently in use is called the ________.
1. top
2. active
3. biggest
4. framed
2. DOS and some versions of UNIX are examples of ________ interfaces.
1. Old-fashioned
2. GUI
3. Command-line
4. Parallel
3. Select the Operating System that may be used in computerized heart-monitor
1. Multi-user/multitasking
2. Real-time
3. Single-user/single tasking
4. Single-user-multitasking
4. Which of the following is not a type  utility software
1. Customization tools
2. Disk and file management
3. Tabbed dialog box
4. Internet security
5. The operating system is the intermediary between programs and ________.
1. User interface
2. Utilities
3. Ether
4. Hardware
6. An operating system keeps track of which programs have access to which hardware devices and uses ________ to help the CPU coordinate processes
1. Interrupt requests (IRQs)
2. Disk drives
3. Multitasking
4. User
7. UNIX and Windows NT are examples of :
1. Single User OS
2. Multi-user OS
3. Multi-user Multi-tasking OS
4. Single-user Multi-tasking OS
8. Windows NT was released as a -------bit operating system in 1993
1. 32
2. 8
3. 16
4. 64
9. The feature which enables the computer system to recognize new device connected to it by users is called:
1. Device identification
2. Plug and Play
3. Connect and Play
4. Auto-configuration
10. In a _______________ network, all devices are connected to a device called a hub and communicate through it
1. Bus
2. Ring
3. Mesh
4. Star
11. Which of the following may be present in a 2-tier network?
1. Web server
2. Application server
3. Both a and b
4. None of these
12. A(n)  ___________ is an agreed upon format for transferring data between two devices.
1. transmission
2. protocol
3. intranet
4. extranet
13. A central computer with a large storage device and other resources which can be shared by all users is called a ________ server.
1. Printer
2. Application
3. Network
4. Resource
14. A __________ is a processing location which can be a PC or some other device such as a networked printer
1. Node
2. Hub
3. Switch
4. Bridge
15. Which of the following network topologies is the LEAST used
1. Star
2. Bus
3. Ring
4. Mesh
16. In the Internet environment, packets are called ____________.
1. Payload
2. Datagrams
3. Messages
4. Headers
17. In which of the following network topologies, data will never fail to be delivered?
1. Mesh
2. Ring
3. Star
4. Tree
18. ___________ broadcasts the packets it receives to all nodes attached to its ports.
1. Router
2. Hub
3. Switch
4. Modem
19. With Cat5 cable, data can move at a speed of up to ________ Mbps.
1. 500
2. 1000
3. 100
4. 256
20. ___________ is a node on a network that serves as an entrance to another network.
1. gateway
2. router
3. DHCP
4. Server
21. With reference to the Peer-to-Peer networks, which of the following statements is TRUE?
1. Peer-to-Peer networks will not have a server
2. All Peer-to-Peer networks will have a server
3. Some peer-to-peer networks have file servers; some do not
4. Peer-to-Peer network is formed among servers only
22. ___________ layer understands IP addresses and is responsible for routing, forwarding and error handling.
1. Network
2. Transport
3. Session 
4. Data Link
23. Common communication services such as compression, encryption are carried out by ___________ layer.
1. Physical
2. Transport
3. Network
4. Presentation
24. VoIP systems transmit the sound of your voice __________________.
1. over the traditional phone wires
2. over a computer network using Internet Protocol
3. over a cellular mobile network
4. over a local area network
25. The abbreviation bps stands for:
1. bytes per second
2. bits per second
3. bandwidth per second
4. baudrate per second
26. Which of the following signals will have only two values?
1. Digital signals
2. voice signals
3. Analog signals
4. Electrical signals
27. The expression Mbps stands for _______.
1. thousand bits per second
2. Megabits per second
3. Gigabits per second
4. Microbits per second
28. The basic rate ISDN service provides ______________.
1. one 256 Kbps data channel and one 64 Kbps error-checking channel
2. two 64 Kbps data channels and one 19 Kbps error-checking channel
3. 13 communication channels
4. Two 13 communication channels
29. A   MODEM is used to covert:
1. Analog signals into digital signals and vice-versa
2. Analog signals into light signals and vice-versa
3. Digital signals into light signals and vice-versa
4. Electrical signals into voice signals and vice-versa
30. A   MODEM is a device used to provide ___________ in a data transmission.
1. Signal strength
2. clarity
3. compatibility
4. Redundancy
31. Data communications usually take place over media that are specifically set up for the network and are know as ________ media.
1. Committed
2. Designated
3. Constant
4. Dedicated
32. If file is sent from your computer to another person’s computer, you are ----------the file.
1. Downloading
2. Sharing
3. Uploading
4. Transferring
33. Which of the following is used to provide Broadband service?
1. Digital Subscriber Line
2. Digital Service Line
3. Telephone Subscriber Line
4. Analog Service Line
34. Many homes and small businesses connect to the Internet by using a telephone line and this.
1. A 5.6 Kbps modem
2. A 56 Kbps modem
3. A 560 Kbps modem
4. A 5,600 Kbps modem
35. A broadband connection may provide a home computer user with data transfer speeds that are ___________ times faster than a standard 56K modem link’
1. 1000
2. 10
3. 100
4. 56
36. Sockets and Winsock are examples of ________ type of software.
1. VCR
2. DSL
3. IPX
4. API
37. Which of the following is network that extends over a large geographical area.
1. WLAN
2. WAN
3. WEP
4. WSAT
38. Wi-Fi Protected Access was created as a replacement for this encryption standard.
1. WEP
2. WPA
3. WLAN
4. WWAN
39. ISDN stands for _________________Services Digital Network
1. Integrated
2. Internet
3. Intranet
4. Incorporated
40. __________________is a generic name given for the station that is installed, when an organization contracts with an ISP
1. SATV
2. TASV
3. VSAT
4. ASTV
41. In a word processor you must select or block the complete text for formatting ____________.
1. Font
2. Paragraph
3. Page
4. Margins
42. In a worksheet, ____________ is the intersection of row and column.
1. grid
2. pixel
3. cell
4. table
43. A __________ is designed to keep track of many different kinds of contact information, for many different people
1. Workbook
2. Program
3. PIM
4. Stand-alone program
44. Spreadsheets work with four basic kinds of data—labels,numbers,date and ____________.
1. Formula
2. Logical
3. Boolean
4. Image
45. Any software which is available to the public for free for a limited period is known as a(n) __________.
1. Openware
2. Free ware
3. Shareware
4. Complimentary-ware
46. In MS Word, a line break can be created by pressing the _____________ key(s).
1. Enter
2. Shift+Enter
3. Ctrl+Enter
4. Alt
47. A ______________ image consists of pixels assigned the required colours.
1. Raster
2. Large
3. Vector
4. Complex
48. Adobe Photoshop, by default, saves images in its proprietary ________ format.
1. PDF
2. JPEG
3. PSD
4. PNG
49. It is easy to move a graphic image from one position to another on the screen in ________ format(s).
1. Vector
2. Bitmapped
3. Both vector and bitmapped
4. Neither  vector nor bitmapped
50. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
1. Both Draw programs and Paint programs provide flexibility
2. Draw programs provide flexibility and Paint programs do not.
3. Paint programs provide flexibility and Draw programs do not.
4. Both Draw programs and Paint programs do not provide flexibility.
51. _______________ is a common file format that exists for vector graphics
1. IEGS
2. IGES
3. ISGE
4. EGIS
52. RAID storage systems use
1. One huge disk drive of large capacity
2. Two or more disks simultaneously
3. A maximum of two disks simultaneously
4. Very low storage capacity
53. SMP and MPP are processes used in ______________.
1. Power plants
2. Wide Area Networks
3. Data Warehouses
4. Data Downloading
54. Which of the following RAID systems is reliable, fast as well as cost effective?
1. Striping with parity
2. Mirroring
3. Striping
4. Striping with parity
55. In which of the following field types, field sizes is not specified?
1. Memo, Counter and Date/Time
2. Memo,  Number, DateTime
3. Memo and Date/Time
4. Text, Memo, Date/Time
56. Binary fields store ______________ values.
1. Yes or No
2. 0 and 1
3. Numbers
4. large objects
57. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Foreign Key?
1. Foreign key fields cannot contain duplicate values
2. Foreign key fields can contain duplicate values
3. Foreign key in one table is primary key of another table
4. Foreign key ensures referential integrity
58. Which of the following query types will produce a Cartesian product?
1. Left join
2. Right join
3. Equi-join
4. None of these
59. Which of the following RDBMS is an “open source”  software?
1. MySQL
2. MS SQL
3. DB2
4. Oracle
60. An efficient way to handle heavy user traffic is to use:
1. Super  database
2. more processors
3. Data mining
4. Disconnected datasets
61. Which of the Normal forms of RDBMS allows attributes that do not depend on the primary key?
1. 1NF
2. 2NF
3. 3NF
4. None of these
62. ________________ databases are two-dimensional tables of fields and records that do not form relationships with other tables.
1. Relational
2. Hierarchical
3. Flat-file
4. Structured file
63. Which of the following RAID level uses striping with parity?
1. Level 0
2. Level 1
3. Level 5
4. All these levels
64. Which of the following hacking techniques do not involve use of any technology?
1. Spoofing
2. Social Engineering
3. Denial of Service
4. Distributed Denial of Service
65. Records such as marriage records are:
1. Private records
2. Confidential records
3. Public records
4. Screened records
66. Which of the following appliances generate magnetic fields?     I) Loudspeakers    II) CRT monitors      III) Flourescent light fixtures
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only
67. Which of the following methods of encryption uses the same key for encryption for decryption?
1. Symmetric key encryption
2. Asymmetric key encryption
3. Public key encryption
4. None of these
68. Data integrity and confidentiality is ensured by using:
1. Public key encryption
2. Private key encryption
3. Combination of both
4. Electronic signature
69. Which of the following type of cookies has a longer storage life?
1. First Party
2. Third Party
3. Session
4. None of these
70. Which of the following ensures a sender's authenticity and an e-mail's confidentiality?
1. Encrypting the hash of the message with the sender's private key and thereafter encrypting the hash of the message with the receiver's public key
2. The sender digitally signing the message and thereafter encrypting the hash of the message with the sender's private key
3. Encrypting the hash of the message with the sender's private key and thereafter encrypting the message with the receiver's public key
4. Encrypting the message with the sender's private key and encrypting the message hash with the receiver's public key
71. Which of the following controls would provide the GREATEST assurance of database integrity?
1. Audit log procedures
2. Table link/reference checks
3. Query/table access time checks
4. Rollback and rollforward database features
72. An installed Ethernet cable run in an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network is more than 100 meters long. Which of the following could be caused by the length of the cable?
1. Electromagnetic interference (EMI)
2. Cross-talk
3. Dispersion
4. Attenuation
73. Which of the following sampling methods is MOST useful when testing for compliance?
1. Attribute sampling
2. Variable sampling
3. Stratified mean per unit
4. Difference estimation
74. Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
1. Gathering evidence on attack attempts
2. Identifying weaknesses in the policy definition
3. Blocking access to particular sites on the Internet
4. Preventing certain users from accessing specific servers
75. In an online banking application, which of the following would BEST protect against identity theft?
1. Encryption of personal password
2. Restricting the user to a specific terminal
3. Two-factor authentication
4. Periodic review of access logs
76. When a new system is to be implemented within a short time frame, it is MOST important to:
1. finish writing user manuals.
2. perform user acceptance testing.
3. add last-minute enhancements to functionalities.
4. ensure that the code has been documented and reviewed
77. Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire in a data center is the MOST effective and environmentally friendly?
1. Halon gas
2. Wet-pipe sprinklers
3. Dry-pipe sprinklers
4. Carbon dioxide gas
78. Which of the following is an example of a passive attack initiated through the Internet?
1. Traffic analysis
2. Man-in-the Middle
3. Denial of service
4. e-mail spoofing
79. The database administrator (DBA) suggests that DB efficiency can be improved by denormalizing some tables. This would result in:
1. loss of confidentiality
2. increased redundancy
3. unauthorized accesses
4. application malfunctions
80. Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of using computer forensic software for investigations?
1. The preservation of the chain of custody for electronic evidence
2. Time and cost savings
3. Efficiency and effectiveness
4. Ability to search for violations of intellectual property rights
81. A programmer maliciously modified a production program to change data and then restored the original code. Which of the following would MOST effectively detect the malicious activity?
1. Comparing source code
2. Reviewing system log files
3. Comparing object code
4. Reviewing executable and source code integrity
82. After installing a network, an organization installed a vulnerability assessment tool or security scanner to identify possible weaknesses. Which is the MOST serious risk associated with such tools?
1. Differential reporting
2. False-positive reporting
3. False-negative reporting
4. Less-detail reporting
83. The FIRST step in managing the risk of a cyberattack is to:
1. assess the vulnerability impact.
2. evaluate the likelihood of threats.
3. identify critical information assets.
4. estimate potential damage.
84. Which of the following is the MOST effective method for dealing with the spreading of a network worm  that exploits vulnerability in a protocol?
1. Install the vendor's security fix for the vulnerability
2. Block the protocol traffic in the perimeter firewall
3. Block the protocol traffic between internal network segments
4. Stop the service until an appropriate security fix is installed
85. Which of the following network components is PRIMARILY set up to serve as a security measure by preventing unauthorized traffic between different segments of the network?:
1. Firewalls
2. Routers
3. Layer 2 switches
4. Virtual local area networks (VLANs)
86. An IS auditor is performing a network security review of a telecom company that provides Internet connection services to shopping malls for their wireless customers. The company uses Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) technology for protecting their customer's payment information. The IS auditor should be MOST concerned if a hacker:
1. compromises the Wireless Application Protocol (WAP) gateway.
2. installs a sniffing program in front of the server.
3. steals a customer's PDA.
4. listens to the wireless transmission
87. Which of the following BEST reduces the ability of one device to capture the packets that are meant for another device?
1. Filters
2. Switches
3. Routers
4. Firewalls
88. In a client-server system, which of the following control techniques is used to inspect activity from knownor unknown users?
1. Diskless workstations
2. Data encryption techniques
3. Network monitoring devices
4. Authentication systems
89. An installed Ethernet cable run in an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network is more than 100 meters long.  Which of the following could be caused by the length of the cable
1. Electromagnetic interference (EMI)
2. Crosstalk
3. Dispersion
4. Attenuation
90. Which of the following would be considered an essential feature of a network management system?
1. A graphical interface to map the network topology
2. Capacity to interact with the Internet to solve the problems
3. Connectivity to a help desk for advice on difficult issues
4. An export facility for piping data to spreadsheets
91. The MOST likely error to occur when-implementing afifewall:
1. incorrectly configuring the access lists.
2. compromising the passwords due to social engineering.
3. connecting a modem to the computers in the network.
4. inadequately protecting the network and server from virus attacks.
92. When reviewing the implementation of a local area network (LAN), an IS auditor should FIRST review the:
1. node list.
2. acceptance test report.
3. network diagram.
4. users list
93. The BEST way to minimize the risk of communication failures in an e-commerce environment would be to use:
1. compression software to minimize transmission duration.
2. functional or message acknowledgments.
3. a packet-filtering firewall to reroute messages.
4. leased asynchronous transfer mode lines
94. IT best practices for the availability and continuity of IT services should:
1. minimize costs associated with disaster-resilient components.
2. provide for sufficient capacity to meet the agreed upon demands of the business.
3. provide reasonable assurance that agreed upon obligations to customers can be met.
4. produce timely performance metric reports
95. During maintenance of a relational database, several values of the foreign key in a transaction table of a relational database have been corrupted. The consequence is that:
1. the detail of involved transactions may no longer be associated with master data, causing errors when these transactions are processed.
2. there is no way of reconstructing the lost information, except by deleting the dangling tuples and reentering the transactions.
3. the database will immediately stop execution and lose more information.
4. the database will no longer accept input data.
96. In a relational database with referential integrity, the use of which of the following keys would prevent deletion of a row from a customer table as long as the customer number of that row is stored with live orders on the orders table?
1. Foreign key
2. Primary key
3. Secondary key
4. Public key
97. An IS auditor examining the configuration of an operating system to verify the controls should review the:
1. transaction logs.
2. authorization tables.
3. parameter settings.
4. routing tables.
98. The computer security incident response team (CSIRT) of an organization disseminates detailed descriptions of recent threats. An IS auditor's GREATEST concern should be that the users might:
1. use this information to launch attacks.
2. forward the security alert.
3. implement individual solutions.
4. fail to understand the threat.
99. Accountability for the maintenance of appropriate security measures over information assets resides with the:
1. security administrator.
2. systems administrator.
3. data and systems owners.
4. systems operations group
100. To determine who has been given permission to use a particular system resource, an IS auditor should review:
1. activity lists.
2. access control lists.
3. logon ID lists.
4. password lists.